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高考英语答案公布!汇总2022全国新高考I卷、全国甲、乙卷英语真题附答案解析

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2022年高考英语

全国新高考Ⅰ卷真题及答案解析


2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷适用地区:山东、广东、福建、江苏、湖南、湖北、河北

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语(全国I卷)


本试卷共10页,满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

注意事项:1. 答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹例笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B船笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用像皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上:如而改动,先则掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。


第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)

第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2-15%; Essay 3= 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Test/Group Work/Homework (10%)

n Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook. 

B. An exam paper.

C. A course plan. 

D. An academic article.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two.

B. Three.

C. Four.

D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero.

B. You will lose a letter grade.

C. You will be given a test.

D. You will have to rewrite it.


【参考答案】

21-23:CBA 


B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”

If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time - but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington. D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yer so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.


24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste.

B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?

A. Moral decline. 

B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage. 

D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment.

B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.

D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed.

B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week.

D. Eat in restaurants less often.


【参考答案】

24-27:BBDA


C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.

“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.

“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”


28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research.

D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills.

B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory.

D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve.

B. Oppose.

C. Begin.

D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received.

B. It needs to be more creative.

C. It is highly profitable.

D. It takes ages to see the results.


【参考答案】

28-31:DBCA  


D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m”and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.


32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research focus on?

A. Its variety.

B. Its distribution.

C. Its quantity.

D. Its development.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication.

B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

D. It drives the evolution of human beings.


【参考答案】

32-35:DCAC



第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分。满分12.5分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “  36   ” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.

So, how do you find a workout partner?

First of all, decide what you want from that person.   37    Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response.   38    If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number.   39    

You and your partner will probably have different skills.   40    Over time, both of you will benefit-your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.


A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You'll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.


【参考答案】

36-40:CDBGF



第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共15小题:每小题1分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.

Some of our   41    are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we 42    along Chalk Creek. I was   43    that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was   44  , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So   45    tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It   46   -he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we   47  , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48  our peaceful morning trip. The 49   picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to   50   the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No   51   . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there   52   , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were   53  .

Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of   54    , wondering what camping fun and    55   we will experience next.


41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D.as for

46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

47. A. signed up B. calmed downC. checked out D. headed off

48. A. arranged B. interruptedC. completed D. recorded

49. A. wind B. noiseC. temperature D. speed

50. A. find B. hideC. start D. fix

51. A. luck B. answerC. wonder D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelesslyC. doubtfully D. helplessly

53. A. sorry B. braveC. safe D. right

54. A. relief B. dutyC. pride D. excitement

55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict


【参考答案】

41-45:CADCB

46-50:ADBAC

51-55:ADCDB



第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park (GPNP).  56    (cover) an area about  three times  57  size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national park in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that  58   (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority  59  (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP  60 (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones,   61   leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity between separate   62  (population)and homes of giant pandas, and  63 (eventual) achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

Giant pandas also serve   64   an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species   65   live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.


【参考答案】

56. Covering 

57. the   

58. were

59. to increase

60. is designed    

61. and

62. populations

63. eventually

64. as

65. that



第四部分 写作(共两节、满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华,请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括:

1.节目介绍;

2.访谈的时间和话题。

注意:

1.写作词数应为80左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Caroline,



Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

   

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.

I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him," he explained uncomfortably. "I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide."

I bit back my frustration (懊恼). I knew the coach meant well-he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer -that's all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the David faced and was school, I was familiar with the challenges the challenges proud of his strong determination.

注意:

1.续写词数应为150左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn't look at me.



I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.

阅读材料试题分析:

今年高考读后续写原文故事情节简单清晰,讲述了David因为脑部疾病影响行动,教练担心他被嘲笑而让他选择是否继续参加比赛。David选择放弃,而“我”作为该学校特殊教育老师,决定帮助鼓励他参加比赛。故事语言相对易懂,内容贴近学生生活,让学生有话可写。所给两段段首句没有生词,降低了学生在审题上的困难。根据第二段段首句,David和其他选手一起站在起跑线,可以反推出作者在写作第一段成功说服David 参加比赛,而从全文立意,情节传达正能量的考量,可以推出David 跑完了比赛。在情节设计上,宜以作者与David的互动为落脚点。从语言一致角度考虑,续写宜选择较常见的动作描写、心理描写等。

情节设计思路:

第一段:我引起David注意——说服David参加比赛——David思考后决定参加比赛

第二段:我给予David鼓励——David坚持跑完——情感升华:David感受到挑战自我的成就感

David 情绪变化:惊讶——犹豫——决心——成就感——感恩

我的情绪:坚定——为David骄傲

推荐句型:Sb seemed to be…

          Without sth, Sb would never do sth.

推荐短语:no reason to do, convince sb of sth, fulfill the ambition, signal to sb with sth, take a deep breath, with all one’s strength, in spite of, out of breath, sense of achievement


2022年高考英语

全国甲卷真题及答案解析

2022年全国甲卷适用地区:云南、广西、贵州、四川、西藏

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国甲卷)

英 语

注意事项:

1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。


第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。


第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15.          B. £9.18.                 C. £9.15.

答案是C。


1. What does the man want to do?

A. Have breakfast.             B. Take a walk.                        C. Call his office.

2. What was George doing last night?

A. Having a meeting.         B. Flying home.                     C. Working on a project.

3. Why does the man suggest going to the park?

A. It's big.                 B. It's quiet.          C. It's new.

4. How does the woman sound?

A. Annoyed.             B. Pleased.       C. Puzzled.

5. Where is the man's table?

A. Near the door.  B. By the window.   C. In the corner.


第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. What are the speakers going to do tonight?

A. Eat out.              B. Go shopping.         C. Do sports.

7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Boss and secretary.        B. Hostess and guest.      

C. Husband and wife.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. Why does the woman think July is the best time to move?

A. Their business is slow.    B. The weather is favorable.      C. It's easy to hire people.

9. How will they handle the moving?

A. Finish it all at once.

B. Have the sales section go first.

C. Do one department at a time.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. What did Peter learn from his grandfather?

A. How to appreciate art works. 

B. How to deal with artists.

C. How to run a museum.

11. What did Peter do in Chicago?

A. He studied at a college.  B. He served in the army.        C. He worked in a gallery.

12. Whose works did Peter like best?

A. Rembrandt's.        B. Botticelli's.         C. Rubens'.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. Where does the conversation take place?

A. At a library.         B. In a law firm.     C. On a train.

14. By what time did John plan to finish his term paper?

A. March.                 B. August.               C. October.

15. Why did John quit his part-time job?

A. He had to catch up with his study.

B. He was offered a better one.

C. He got tired of it.

16. What is Susan's attitude to John's problem?

A. Carefree.     B. Understanding.     C. Forgiving.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. What did the speaker do before the year 2012?

A. A fitness coach.             B. A chess player.      

C. A marathon runner.

18. Why was the 2016 Olympics important for the speaker?

A. He was motivated by Bolt.

B. He broke a world record.

C. He won fifth place.

19. Which is the hardest for the speaker?

A. Getting over an injury.   

B. Doing strength training.       

C. Representing Botswana.

20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?

A. His plan to go for the gold. B. His experience on the track.     C. His love for his home country.


第二部分  阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。


A

Theatres and Entertainment

St David's Hall

St David's Hall is the award winning National Concert Hall of Wales standing at the very heart of Cardiff's entertainment centre. With an impressive 2,000-seat concert hall, St David's Hall is home to the annual Welsh Proms Cardiff. It presents live entertainment, including pop, rock, folk, jazz, musicals, dance, world music, films and classical music.

The Hayes, Cardiff CF 10 1 AH

www.stdavidshallcardiff.co.uk


The Glee Club

Every weekend this is "Wales" premier comedy club where having a great time is the order for both audiences and comedy stars alike. It is hard to name a comedy star who hasn't been on the stage here. If you are looking for the best comedies on tour and brilliant live music, you should start here.

Mermaid Quay, Cardiff Bay, Cardiff CF 10 5 BZ

www.glee.co.uk/cardiff


Sherman Cymru

Sherman Cymru's theatre in the Cathays area of Cardiff reopened in February 2012. This special building is a place in which theatre is made and where children, artists, writers and anyone else have the opportunity (机会) to do creative things. Sherman Cymru is excited to present a packed programme of the very best theatre, dance, family shows and music from Wales and the rest of the world.

Senghennydd Road, Cardiff CF 24 4 YE

www.shermancymru.co.uk


New Theatre

The New Theatre has been the home of quality drama, musicals, dance and children's shows for more than 100 years. Presenting the best of the West End along with the pick of the UK's touring shows, the New Theatre is Cardiff's oldest surviving traditional theatre. Be sure to pay a visit as part of your stay in the city.

Park Place, Cardiff CF 10 3 LN

www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk


21. Where is the Welsh Proms Cardiff hosted?

A. At the New Theatre.                         

B. At the Glee Club.

C. At Sherman Cymru.                        

D. At St David's Hall.

22. What can people do at the Glee Club?

A. Watch musicals.                                

B. Enjoy comedies.

C. See family shows.                               

D. Do creative things.

23. Which website can you visit to learn about Cardiff's oldest surviving theatre?

A. www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk                          

B. www.shermancymru.co.uk

C. www.glee.co.uk/cardiff                               

D. www.stdavidshalleardiff.co.uk


【答案】21. D   22. B    23. A

【解析】

【分析】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了Cardiff当地的一些剧院和娱乐场所。

21题详解】

细节理解题。根据文章“St David’s Hall”部分中的“St David’s Hall is home to the annual Welsh Proms Cardiff (St David’s Hall是Cardiff一年一度的Welsh Proms的举办地)”可知,Cardiff的Welsh Proms活动在St David’s Hall举办。故选D。

【22题详解】

细节理解题。根据文章“The Glee Club”部分中的“If you are looking for the best comedies on tour and brilliant live music, you should start here (如果你正在寻找巡演中最好的喜剧和精彩的现场音乐,你应该从这里开始)”可知,人们可以在The Glee Club享受喜剧。故选B。

【23题详解】

细节理解题。根据文章“New Theatre”部分中的“The New Theatre has been the home of quality drama, musicians, dance and children’s shows for more than 100 years (100多年来,New Theatre一直是优质戏剧、音乐家、舞蹈和儿童节目的发源地)”以及其下面的网站“www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk”可知,可以在www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk网站找到Cardiff存在最久的剧院。故选A。


B

Goffin's cockatoos, a kind of small parrot native to Australasia, have been shown to have similar shape-recognition abilities to a human two-year-old. Though not known to use tools in the wild, the birds have proved skilful at tool use while kept in the cage. In a recent experiment, cockatoos were presented with a box with a nut inside it. The clear front of the box had a "keyhole" in a geometric shape, and the birds were given five differently shaped "keys" to choese from. Inserting the correct "key" would let out the nut.

In humans, babies can put a round shape in a round hole from around one year of age, but it will be another year before they are able to do the same with less symmetrical(对称的) shapes. his ability to recognize that a shape will need to be turned in a specific direction before it will fit is called an "allocentric frame of reference". In the experiment, Goffin's cockatoos were able to select the right tool for the job, in most cases, by visual recognition alone. Where trial-and-error was used, the cockatoos did better than monkeys in similar tests. This indicates that Goffin's cockatoos do indeed possess an allocentric frame of reference when moving objects in space, similar to two-year-old babies.

The next step, according to the researchers, is to try and work out whether the cockatoos rely entirely on visual clues(线索), or also use a sense of touch in making their shape selections.


24. How did the cockatoos get the nut from the box in the experiment?

A. By following instructions.                      

B. By using a tool.

C. By turning the box around.                      

D. By removing the lid.

25. Which task can human one-year-olds most likely complete according to the text?

A. Using a key to unlock a door.           

B. Telling parrots from other birds.

C. Putting a ball into a round hole.           

D. Grouping toys of different shapes.

26. What does the follow-up test aim to find out about the cockatoos?

A. How far they are able to see.       

B. How they track moving objects.

C. Whether they are smarter than monkeys.               

D. Whether they use a sense of touch in the test.

27. Which can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Cockatoos: Quick Error Checkers          

B. Cockatoos: Independent Learners

C. Cockatoos: Clever Signal-Readers            

D. Cockatoos: Skilful Shape-Sorters


【答案】24. B    25. C    26. D    27. D

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了一种会识别形状的凤头鹦鹉。

【24题详解】

细节理解题。根据文章第一段“Though not known to use tools in the wild, the birds have proved skilful at tool use while kept in the cage. (虽然人们不知道这些鸟在野外会使用工具,但事实证明,它们在关在笼子里时就能熟练地使用工具)”以及“the birds were given five differently shaped “keys” to choose from. Inserting, the correct “keys” would let out the nut. (研究人员给了这些鸟5把形状各异的“钥匙”供它们选择。插入,正确的“钥匙”会让坚果出来)”可知,在实验中,凤头鹦鹉是通过使用工具从盒子里取出坚果的。故选B。

【25题详解】

细节理解题。根据文章第二段“In humans, babies can put a round shape in a round hole from around one year of age (在人类身上,婴儿从一岁左右就可以把一个圆形的物品放进一个圆形的洞里)”结合选项,可知,一岁儿童最有可能完成“将一个球放进一个圆形的洞里”的任务。故选C。

【26题详解】

推理判断题。通过文章最后一段“The next step, according to the researchers, is to try and work out whether the cockatoos rely entirely on visual clues, or also use a sense of touch in making their shape selections. (根据研究人员的说法,下一步是尝试弄清楚凤头鹦鹉是完全依靠视觉线索,还是也使用触觉来选择它们的形状)”可推知,后续测试的目的是了解凤头鹦鹉在测试中是否使用触觉。故选D。

【27题详解】

主旨大意题。通读全文,再结合文章第一段“Coffin’s cockatoos, a kind of small parrot native to Australasia, have been shown to have similar shape-recognition abilities to a human two-year-old. (科芬的凤头鹦鹉是一种原产于大洋洲的小鹦鹉,它的形状识别能力与两岁的人类相似)”可推知,本文主要介绍了会识别形状的凤头鹦鹉。D项“Cockatoos: Skilful Shape-Sorters (凤头鹦鹉:识别形状的熟练工)”符合文意,最适合作为本文标题。故选D。


C

As Ginni Bazlinton reached Antarctica, she found herself greeted by a group of little Gentoo penguins(企鹅)longing to say hello. These gentle, lovely gatekeepers welcomed her and kick-started what was to be a trip Ginni would never forget.

Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now 71, has had a deep love for travel. Throughout her career(职业)as a professional dancer, she toured in the UK, but always longed to explore further When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest, she decided it was time to take the plunge.

After taking a degree at Chichester University in Related Arts, Ginni began to travel the world, eventually getting work teaching English in Japan and Chile. And it was in Chile she discovered she could get last-minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica from the islands off Tierra del Fuego, the southernmost tip of the South American mainland. "I just decided wanted to go," she says. "I had no idea about what I'd find there and I wasn't nervous, I just wanted to do it. And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way."

In March 2008, Ginni boarded a ship with 48 passengers she'd never met before, to begin the journey towards Antarctica. "From seeing the wildlife to witnessing sunrises, the whole experience was amazing. Antarctica left an impression on me that no other place has," Ginni says. "I remember the first time I saw a humpback whale; it just rose out of the water like some prehistoric creature and I thought it was smiling at us. You could still hear the operatic sounds it was making underwater."

The realization that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni.


28. Which of the following best explains "take the plunge" underlined in paragraph 2?

A. Try challenging things.                        

B. Take a degree.

C. Bring back lost memories.                        

D. Stick to a promise.

29. What made Ginni decide on the trip to Antarctica?

A. Lovely penguins.                              

B. Beautiful scenery.

C. A discount fare.                              

D. A friend's invitation.

30. What does Ginni think about Antarctica after the journey?

A. It could be a home for her.                  

B. It should be easily accessible.

C. It should be well preserved.                   

D. It needs to be fully introduced.

31. What is the text mainly about?

A. A childhood dream.       

B. An unforgettable experience.

C. Sailing around the world.      

D. Meeting animals in Antarctica.


【答案】28. A    29. C    30. C    31. A

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了71岁的Ginni Balinton从小就对旅行有着深深的热爱,渴望探险,不再跳舞和孩子们成家立业之后,她开始周游世界,并在2008年开始了前往南极洲的旅程。

【28题详解】

词句猜测题。根据第二段划线词前文“Throughout her career(职业) as a professional dancer, she toured in the UK, but always longed to explore further. (在她的职业舞蹈演员生涯中,她曾在英国巡演,但一直渴望进一步探索)”和“When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest,(当她不再跳舞,她的儿子们最终独立生活)”可知,Ginni在退休和儿子们成家立业之后,她决定尝试有挑战性的事情。由此推知,划线词组take the plunge与try challenging things“尝试有挑战性的事情”意思接近。故选A。

【29题详解】

细节理解题。根据第三段中的“And it was in Chile she discovered she could get last-minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica from the islands off Tiera del Fuego.(正是在智利,她发现自己可以在最后一刻买到从火地岛附近岛屿前往南极洲的廉价船只)”可知,是一张折扣票价让Ginni决定去南极洲旅行的。故选C。

【30题详解】

细节理解题。根据最后一段“The realization that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni.(意识到这是一块宝贵的土地,应该受到人类的尊重,这是Ginni最深刻的感受之一。)”可知,旅行结束后,Ginni认为南极洲应该得到很好的保护。故选C。

【31题详解】

主旨大意题。根据第二段“Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now 71 has had a deep love for travel.(今年71岁的吉妮从小就对旅行有着深深的热爱)”及全文可知,文章主要介绍了71岁的Ginni Balinton从小就对旅行有着深深的热爱,渴望探险,不再跳舞和孩子们成家立业之后,她开始周游世界,并在2008年开始了前往南极洲的旅程。由此可知,A childhood dream.(童年的梦想)能够概括文章主旨。故选A。


D

Sometime in the early 1960s, a significant thing happened in Sydney, Australia. The city discovered its harbor. Then, one after another, Sydney discovered tots of things that were just sort of there-broad parks, superb beaches, and a culturally diverse population. But it is the harbor that makes the city.

Andrew Reynolds, a cheerful fellow in his early 30s, pilots Sydney ferryboats for a living. I spent the whole morning shuttling back and forth across the harbor. After our third run Andrew shut down the engine, and we went our separate ways-he for a lunch break, I to explore the city.

"I'll miss these old boats," he said as we parted.

"How do you mean?" I asked.

"Oh, they're replacing them with catamarans. Catamarans are faster, but they're not so elegant, and they're not fun to pilot. Hut that's progress,I guess."

Everywhere in Sydney these days, change and progress are the watchwords(口号), and traditions are increasingly rare. Shirley Fitzgerald, the city's official historian, told me that in its rush to modernity in the 1970s, Sydney swept aside much of its past, including many of its finest buildings. "Sydney is confused about itself," she said. "We can't seem to make up our minds whether we want a modern city or a traditional one. It's a conflict that we aren't getting any better at resolving(解决).”

On the other hand, being young and old at the same time has its attractions. I considered this when I met a thoughtful young businessman named Anthony. "Many people say that we lack culture in this country," he told me. "What people forget is that the Italians, when they came to Australia, brought 2000 years of their culture, the Greeks some 3000 years, and the Chinese more still. We've got a foundation built on ancient cultures but with a drive and dynamism of a young country. It's a pretty hard combination to beat."

He is right, but I can't help wishing they would keep those old ferries.


32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. Sydney's striking architecture.            

B. The cultural diversity of Sydney.

C. The key to Sydney's development.            

D. Sydney's tourist attractions in the 1960s.

33. What can we learn about Andrew Reynolds?

A. He goes to work by boat.                  

B. He looks forward to a new life.

C. He pilots catamarans well.                   

D. He is attached to the old ferries.

34. What does Shirley Fitzgerald think of Sydney?

A. It is losing its traditions.             

B. It should speed up its progress.

C. It should expand its population.            

D. It is becoming more international.

35. Which statement will the author probably agree with?

A. A city can be young and cad at the same time.

B. A city built on ancient cultures is more dynamic.

C. modernity is usually achieved at the cost of elegance.

D. Compromise should be made between the local and the foreign.


【答案】32. C    33. D    34. A    35. A

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇夹叙夹议文。文章通过作者和悉尼人士的交流介绍了悉尼发展中面临的问题。

【32题详解】

主旨大意题。根据第一段“Sometime in the early 1960s, a significant thing happened in Sydney, Australia. The city discovered its harbor. (20世纪60年代初,澳大利亚悉尼发生了一件大事。这座城市发现了它的港口) ”以及“But it is the harbor that makes the city. (但是是港口造就了城市)”可知,本段主要介绍了悉尼发展的关键是港口。故选C项。

【33题详解】

细节理解题。根据第二段“Andrew Reynolds, a cheerful fellow in his early 30s, pilot Sydney ferryboats for a living. (30岁出头的Andrew Reynolds是个快乐的小伙子,他在悉尼担任渡轮领航员为生)”、第三段“I’ll miss these old boats. (我会想念这些旧船的)”以及第五段“Catamarans are faster, but they’re not so elegant, and they’re not fun to pilot. (双体船更快,但它们不那么优雅,驾驶起来也不有趣)”可知,渡轮领航员Andrew Reynolds喜欢老式渡船。故选D项。

【34题详解】

推理判断题。根据倒数第三段“Shirley Fitzgerald, the city’s official historian, told me that in its rush to modernity in the 1970s, Sydney swept aside much of its past, including many of its finest buildings. (悉尼的官方历史学家Shirley Fitzgerald告诉我,在20世纪70年代奔向现代化的过程中,悉尼把很多它的过去都抛在了一边,包括许多最漂亮的建筑)”可推知,Shirley Fitzgerald认为悉尼匆忙奔向现代化,正在失去它的传统。故选A项。

【35题详解】

推理判断题。根据倒数第二段“On the other hand, being young and old at the same time has its attractions. I considered this when I met a thoughtful young businessman named Anthony. (另一方面,同时既年轻又古老也有它的魅力。当我遇到一位深思熟虑的年轻商人Anthony时,我考虑到了这一点)”以及最后一段“He is right (他说得没错)”可推知,作者赞同Anthony的观点,认为一座城市可以同时既年轻又古老。故选A项。


第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Important Things to Know When Dicing Out

Cultural dining etiquette (礼节) might surprise you with some of its important rules.   36   Knowing some tips will help ensure that you have an enjoyable meal with friends or family-no matter where you are in the world.

Chopstick Rules

The way you handle chopsticks is important to avid annoying your companions. When you put them down between bite, always put them down together so they are parallel with the edge of the table in front of you. 37   

Hands or Utensils (餐具)

In India and the Middle East, it's considered very rude to eat with your left hand. People in France expect you to cat with a utensil in each hand.  38  instead preferring to use their hands. In chide, you may never touch any fool with your fingers. People in Thailand generally use their jerks only to push food onto their spoons.

Making Requests

 39   . In Portugal, this would be a serious mistake, because it shows the chef that you don't like their seasoning skills. Similarly, in Italy, never ask for extra cheese to add to your food.

Some of these cultural dining etiquette rules may seem random and strange, but they are important in various countries. 40   , the more con for table you'll begin to feel with its foreign cultural practice.


A. The more friends you make in your lifetime

B. The more time you spend in any given country

C. Mexicans consider it inappropriate to eat with utensils

D. Don't get caught making an embarrassing mistake at a restaurant

E. It's a good sign for the chef if you make a mess around your plate

F. Never stick them upright in your food or cross them as you use them

G. It may seem like a simple request to ask for salt and pepper at a meal


【答案】36. D    37. F    38. C   39. G    40. B

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了一些外出就餐时要知道的一些重要事情。

【36题详解】

根据文章标题“Important Things to Know When Dining Out (外出就餐时要知道的重要事情)”可知,本文主要介绍的是外出就餐时应该知道的重要事情。由此可知,D项“Don’t get caught making an embarrassing mistake at a restaurant (不要在餐馆犯尴尬的错误)”符合语境,其中“at a restaurant”对应标题中的“When Dining Out”,同时引起下文“Knowing some tips will help ensure that you have an enjoyable meal with friends or family — no matter where you are in the world. (知道一些技巧将有助于确保你和朋友或家人一起享受一顿愉快的晚餐——无论你在世界的哪个地方)”。故选D。

【37题详解】

根据本段小标题“Chopstick Rules”可知,本段主要讲述的是使用筷子的规则。根据上文“When you put them down between bites, always put them down together so they are parallel with the edge of the table in front of you. (当你在吃的间隙把它们放下来的时候,一定要把它们放在一起,这样它们就和你面前的桌子边缘平行了)”可知,此处讲述了正确使用筷子的方式。由此可知,F项“Never stick them upright in your food or cross them as you use them (不要把它们笔直地插在你的食物中,也不要在使用它们时交叉放置)”讲述的也是使用筷子时的注意事项,符合此处语境,其中“them”指的是上文的“chopsticks”。故选F。

【38题详解】

根据本段小标题“Hands or Utensils (餐具)”可知,本段主要讲述的是手和餐具的问题。根据上文“In India and the Middle East, it’s considered very rude to eat with your left hand. People in France expect you to eat with a utensil in each hand. (在印度和中东,用左手吃饭被认为是非常不礼貌的。法国人希望你每只手拿一个餐具吃饭)”及下文“instead preferring to use their hands (相反更愿意使用他们的双手)”可知,此处在讲述不同国家就餐时习惯使用哪只手的问题。由此可知,C项“Mexicans consider it inappropriate to eat with utensils (墨西哥人认为用餐具吃饭是不合适的)”符合语境,与下文形成转折关系。故选C。

【39题详解】

根据本段小标题“Making Requests”可知,本段主要讲述的是用餐时提请求的问题。根据下文“In Portugal, this would be a serious mistake, because it shows the chef that you don’t like their seasoning skills. Similarly, in Italy, never ask for extra cheese to add to your food. (在葡萄牙,这将是一个严重的错误,因为这向厨师表明你不喜欢他们的调味技巧。同样,在意大利,永远不要要求在食物中添加额外的奶酪)”可推知,在一些国家,用餐时提出要求是很无礼的。由此可知,G项“It may seem like simple request to ask for salt and pepper at a meal (吃饭时要盐和胡椒看似很简单)”符合此处语境,其中“request”是关键词,说明,在用餐时提出一些我们看来很平常的要求在某些国家是无礼的。故选G。

【40题详解】

根据下文“the more comfortable you’ll begin to feel with its foreign cultural practices. (你就会对它的外国文化习俗感到越舒服)”可推知,此处指在一个国家待得越久,就会越习惯当地习俗,且此处是“the+比较级,the+比较级”结构,B项“The more time you spend in any given country (你在某个国家待的时间越长)”符合文意,引出下文。故选B。


第三部分  语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

You can tell a lot about a man by how he treats his dogs.

For many years, I enjoyed living with my dogs, Tilly and Chance. Their 41 was nearly enough to keep my loneliness at bay, Nearly. Last year. I started dating, but with  42  . When I first dated Steve, I   43   he had a dog. Molly, and a cat, Flora. While I was   44   that he was an animal lover, I  45  that three dogs were perhaps too many, and my dogs might attack   46   , the cat.

The next week we 47  our dogs together. It was a hot day. When we paused to catch our  48   , Steve got down on one knee. Was he proposing (求婚)? I liked him too. But so  49  ? He poured water from a bottle into his hand and offered it to my dogs.   50   , I began to fall for him.

We 51  to date, though neither of us brought up the future. And then in late November, Tilly had an operation on her  52  . I took the dogs out four times a day, and I worried that Tilly  53  climbing the stairs could reopen the wound. Then Steve   54   his house. All worked  55  . The three dogs formed a pack that, with coaching,   56   Flora's space; Steve and I formed a good team  57  for Tilly. We made good housemates.

A year later, much to my  58   this man produced a little box with a ring and proposed to me. He did not kneel (跪) down, nor did I  59 him to. That's only for giving   60  to the dogs that brought us together.


41. A. ownership   B. membership    C. companionship  D. leadership

42. A. reservations   B. expectations      C. confidence  D. prejudice

43. A. feared      B. doubted   C. hoped   D. learned

44. A. unsatisfied   B. amused  C. terrified    D. thrilled

45. A. predicted   B. worried   C. regretted  D. insisted

46. A. Flora   B. chance      C. Molly        D. Tilly

47. A. tied    B. walked      C. bathed        D. fed

48. A. breath  B. balance   C. attention D. imagination

49. A. calm  B. sure      C. soon   D real

50. A. By the way   B. In that case   C. By all means            D. In that moment

51. A. continued  B. decided  C. intended D. pretended

52. A. eye    B. tail         C. ear              D. leg

53. A. secretly   B. constantly  C. eventually  D. unwillingly

54. A. left      B. sold     C. suggested     D. searched

55. A. late       B. hard       C. fine                   D. free

56. A. emptied B. respected C. occupied  D. discovered

57. A. looking  B. caring    C. waiting    D. calling

58. A. delight    B. credit     C. interest   D. disadvantage

59. A. beg  B. trust    C. need          D. aid

60. A. toys   B. awards         C. food        D. water


【答案】

41. C    42. A    43. D   44. B    45. B    46. A   47. B    48. A    49. C   50. D   

51. A 52. D    53. B    54. A   55. C    56. B    57. B   58. A    59. C    60. D

【解析】

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了,作者认为你可以从一个男人对待他的狗的方式来了解他很多,作者多年和两只爱犬生活在一起,去年开始和拥有猫狗的史蒂夫约会,但有所保留,因为一次遛狗时史蒂夫把水给自己的爱犬喝,作者渐渐对史蒂夫产生好感,在之后的接触中,史蒂夫和作者一起照顾作者的爱犬,一年后史蒂夫向作者求婚。

【41题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:它们的陪伴几乎足以让我远离孤独。A. ownership所有权;B. membership会员;C. companionship陪伴;D. leadership领导。由上文的“For many years, I enjoyed living with my dogs, Tilly and Chance. (多年来,我喜欢和我的狗Tilly和Chance生活在一起)”可知,作者多年和狗狗生活在一起,可得出狗狗陪伴着作者,让作者远离孤独。故选C项。

【42题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:去年,我开始约会,但有所保留。A. reservations保留;B. expectations期望;C. confidence信心;D. prejudice偏见。由下文的“He poured water from a bottle into his hand and offered it to my dogs. (他把瓶子里的水倒在手里,递给我的狗)”和“I began to fall for him (我开始爱上他)”可知,作者是在第二周和史蒂夫一起遛狗时,因为史蒂夫把水给自己的爱犬喝,作者才对史蒂夫产生好感,可得出刚开始约会时,因为不熟悉史蒂夫的品行,作者还是有所保留的。故选A项。

【43题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:当我第一次和史蒂夫约会时,我得知他有一条名叫Molly的狗和一只名叫Flora的猫。A. feared恐惧;B. doubted怀疑;C. hoped希望;D. learned得知。由上文的“When I first dated Steve (当我第一次和史蒂夫约会时)”和常识可知,第一次约会会得知对方相关情况,作者从而得知史蒂夫有一只狗和一只猫。故选D项。

【44题详解】

考查形容词词义辨析。句意:虽然我很高兴他是一个动物爱好者,但我担心三条狗可能太多了,我的狗可能会攻击猫Flora。A. unsatisfied不满意的;B. amused愉快的;C. terrified害怕的;D. thrilled刺激的。由下文的“he was an animal lover (他是一个动物爱好者)”可知,得知史蒂夫是一个动物爱好者,多年和两只爱犬生活在一起的作者应该是感到愉快高兴。故选B项。

【45题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:虽然我很高兴他是一个动物爱好者,但我担心三条狗可能太多了,我的狗可能会攻击猫Flora。A. predicted预测;B. worried担心;C. regretted后悔;D. insisted坚持。由下文的“three dogs were perhaps too many, and my dogs might attack     6    the cat (三条狗可能太多了,我的狗可能会攻击猫)”可知,作者认为三条狗可能太多了,且自己的狗可能会攻击史蒂夫的猫,针对这种情况,作者是担忧的。故选B项。

【46题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:虽然我很高兴他是一个动物爱好者,但我担心三条狗可能太多了,我的狗可能会攻击猫Flora。A. Flora弗洛拉;B. Chance机会;C. Molly莫莉;D. Tilly蒂莉。选项指的是文中动物名词。由上文的“he had a dog, Molly, and a car, Flora (他有一条名叫Molly的狗和一只名叫Flora的猫)”可知,此处指作者担心自己的狗可能会攻击史蒂夫的猫Flora。故选A项。

【47题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:第二周,我们一起遛狗。A. tied系;B. walked牵着(动物)走;C. bathed沐浴;D. fed喂养。由本处的“  7  our dogs together (一起……我们的狗)”可知,作者和史蒂夫在一起遛狗。故选B项。

【48题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:当我们停下来休息时,史蒂夫单膝跪下。A. breath呼吸;B. balance平衡;C. attention注意力;D. imagination想象。由上文的“It was a hot day. When we paused (那是一个炎热的日子。当我们停下)”可知,那天很热,遛狗的二人停下来休息一下,catch one’s breath (休息一下、歇一口气)。故选A项。

【49题详解】

考查形容词词义辨析。句意:我也喜欢他,但这么快?A. calm冷静的;B. sure确定的;C. soon很快的;D real真正的。由上文的“The next week (第二周)”和“Was he proposing (求婚)? (他在求婚吗)”可知,二人才认识两周,作者以为史蒂夫要向自己求婚,认为进展太快了。故选C项。

【50题详解】

考查介词短语辨析。句意:就在那一刻,我开始爱上他。A. By the way顺便说一句;B. In that case那样的话;C. By all means务必;D. In that moment那一刻。由上文的“He poured water from a bottle into his hand and offered it to my dogs. (他把瓶子里的水倒在手里,递给我的狗)”和下文的“I began to fall for him (我开始爱上他)”可知,就在史蒂夫把水给作者爱犬喝的那一刻,还有所保留的作者卸下心防,对史蒂夫产生好感。故选D项。

【51题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:我们继续约会,虽然我们都没有提到未来。A. continued继续;B. decided决定;C. intended打算;D. pretended假装。由上文的“I began to fall for him (我开始爱上他)”可知,作者对史蒂夫产生好感,可得出二人会继续约会。故选A项。

【52题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:11月下旬,Tilly的腿做了一次手术。A. eye眼睛;B. tail尾巴;C. ear耳朵;D. leg腿。由下文的“I worried that Tilly   13   climbing the stairs could reopen the wound (我担心Tilly爬楼梯会重新打开伤口)”可知,作者担心爬楼会影响Tilly的伤口,可得出Tilly的腿做了手术。故选D项。

【53题详解】

考查副词词义辨析。句意:我一天带狗出去四次,我担心Tilly不断地爬楼梯会重新打开伤口。A. secretly秘密地;B. constantly不断地;C. eventually最终;D. unwillingly不情愿地。由上文的“I took the dogs out four times a day (我一天带狗出去四次)”可知,作者一天带狗出去四次,可得出狗狗(包括Tilly)要不断地爬楼梯。故选B项。

【54题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:然后史蒂夫离开了他的房子。A. left离开;B. sold卖;C. suggested建议;D. searched搜寻。由下文的“We made good housemates. (我们是很好的室友)”可知,二人成为室友,可得出史蒂夫离开了他的房子,和作者一起居住。故选A项。

【55题详解】

考查形容词词义辨析。句意:一切都很好。A. late晚的;B. hard困难的;C. fine好的;D. free自由的。由下文的“The three dogs formed a pack (这三条狗组成了一个团队)”和“Steve and I formed a good team (史蒂夫和我组成了一个好团队)”“We made good housemates. (我们是很好的室友)”可知,狗狗相处友好,作者和史蒂夫相处也友好,可得出一切都好。故选C项。

【56题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:这三条狗组成了一个团队,在训练下,尊重Flora的空间;史蒂夫和我组成了一个照顾Tilly的好团队。A. emptied清空;B. respected尊重;C. occupied占据;D. discovered发现。由上文的“my dogs might attack   6   , the cat (我的狗可能会攻击猫)”和“The three dogs formed a pack that, with coaching (这三条狗组成了一个团队,在训练下)”可知,起初作者担心自己的狗会攻击史蒂夫的猫Flora,但作者的狗和史蒂夫的狗相处友好,可得出在训练下,狗不会去攻击猫,结合动物的领地意识可知,此处指狗尊重猫的空间。故选B项。

【57题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:这三条狗组成了一个团队,在训练下,尊重Flora的空间;史蒂夫和我组成了一个照顾Tilly的好团队。A. looking看;B. caring照顾;C. waiting等待;D. calling打电话。由上文的“Tilly had an operation (Tilly做了一次手术)”可知,作者的狗Tilly做过手术,史蒂夫和作者一起居住后,和作者一起照顾术后康复的Tilly。故选B项。

58题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:一年后,令我非常高兴的是,这个男人拿出一个带戒指的小盒子向我求婚。A. delight高兴;B. credit信用;C. interest兴趣;D. disadvantage缺点。由下文的“this man produced a little box with a ring and proposed to me (这个男人拿出一个带戒指的小盒子向我求婚)”可知,史蒂夫向作者求婚,作者应该是感到高兴。故选A项。

【59题详解】

考查动词词义辨析。句意:他没有跪下,我也不需要他跪下。A. beg乞求;B. trust信任;C. need需要;D. aid帮助。由上文的“He did not kneel (跪) down (他没有跪下)”和常识可知,一般求婚是要下跪的,但史蒂夫没有下跪,作者对此并不在意,因为作者不需要他下跪。故选C项。

【60题详解】

考查名词词义辨析。句意:正是给爱犬喝水的举动把我们带到一起。A. toys玩具;B. awards奖励;C. food食物;D. water水。由上文的“He poured water from a bottle into his hand and offered it to my dogs.   10   , I began to fall for him. (他把瓶子里的水倒在手里,递给我的狗。我开始爱上他)”可知,就在史蒂夫把水给作者爱犬喝的那一刻,还有所保留的作者卸下心防,对史蒂夫产生好感,所以是“给爱犬喝水”的举动让二人走到了一起。故选D项。


第二节 ( 共10小题:每小题1.5分, 满分15分 )

阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式.

A visually-challenged man from Beijing recently hiked (徒步) 40 days to Xi'an, aha first step   61   (journey ) the Belt and Road route (路线) by foot.

On the 1,100. Kilometer journey, the man Cao Shengkang, 62   lost his eyesight at the age of eight in a car accident, crossed 40 cities and counties in three province. Inspired by the Belt and Road Forum for Interactional Cooperation   63   (bold) in Beijing. Cao decided to cover the route by hiking as a tribute (致敬) to the ancient Silk Road.   64   friend of his, Wu Fan, volunteered to be his companion during the trip.

Cao and Wu also collect cd garbage along the road, in order to promote environmental 65   (protect). Cao believes this will make the hiking trip even more   66   (meaning). The two of them collected more than 1,000 plastic bottles along the 40-day journey.

In the last five cars. Cao 67   (walk) through 34 countries in six continents, and in 2016, he reached the top of Kilimanjaro, Africa's   68   (high ) mountain.

Now, Cao has started the second part of his dream to walk along the Belt and Road route. He flew 4, 700 kilometers 69   Xi'an to Kashgar on seat. 20,   70   (plan) to hike back to Xi'an in five months.


【答案】

61. to journey   62. who   63. held  64. A   65. protection 66. meaningful 67. has walked  68. highest         69. from     70. planning

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述的是一个失明的北京男子曹盛康徒步旅行一带一路的事情。

【61题详解】

考查非谓语动词。句意:近日,一名来自北京的盲人徒步40天来到西安,作为“一带一路”徒步旅行的第一步。分析句子结合句意可知,journey为动词,表示“旅行”,step前面有序数词,应用不定式,作后置定语。故填to journey。

【62题详解】

考查定语从句。句意:在1100公里的旅程中,8岁时因一次车祸失明的男子曹盛康穿过了三个省的40个城市和县。分析句子结合句意可知,此处是非限定性定语从句,先行词为Cao Shengkang,指人,在从句中作主语,应用关系代词who引导。故填who。

【63题详解】

考查非谓语动词。句意:受到在北京举行的“一带一路”国际合作高峰论坛的启发,曹决定徒步穿越这条路线,以向古代丝绸之路致敬。分析句子可知,本句已有谓语动词decided,所以hold应用非谓语动词形式,hold与cooperation之间为逻辑动宾关系,应用过去分词,作后置定语,表被动。故填held。

【64题详解】

考查冠词。句意:他的一位朋友吴凡在旅行中自愿成为他的同伴。根据句意可知,此处泛指“他的一个朋友”,应用不定冠词,friend以辅音音素开头,应用a,空处位于句首,首字母大写。故填A。

【65题详解】

考查名词。句意:曹和吴还沿路收集垃圾,以促进环境保护。根据句意和空前的形容词environmental可知,此处应用名词protection,作宾语,protection表示“保护”时,是不可数名词。故填protection。

【66题详解】

考查形容词。句意:曹认为这将使这次徒步旅行更加有意义。此处是make复合结构,应用形容词meaningful,作宾语补足语。故填meaningful。

【67题详解】

考查动词时态。句意:在过去的五年中,曹操穿越了六大洲的34个国家,2016年,他到达了乞力马扎罗山顶,这是非洲最高的山峰。根据时间状语in the last five years可知,此处应用现在完成时,主语Cao为第三人称单数,助动词用has。故填has walked。

【68题详解】

考查形容词最高级。句意:在过去的五年中,曹穿越了六大洲的34个国家,2016年,他到达了乞力马扎罗山顶,这是非洲最高的山峰。根据空前Africa’s可知,此处表示乞力马扎罗山是非洲最高的山脉,应用形容词最高级。故填highest。

【69题详解】

考查介词。句意:9月20日,他从4700公里外的西安飞到了喀什,计划在五个月内徒步回到西安。根据句意和Xi’an to Kashgar 可知,此处表示“从西安飞往喀什”,应用介词from,固定搭配from…to…表示“从……到……”。故填from。

【70题详解】

考查非谓语动词。句意:9月20日,他从4700公里外的西安飞到了喀什,计划在五个月内徒步回到西安。分析句子可知,已有谓语动词flew,所以动词plan(计划)应用非谓语动词形式,plan与主语He之间为逻辑主谓关系,应用现在分词,表主动。故填planning。


第四部分  写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节 短文改错 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换经改作文。请你修改你同桌写的以下作文.文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处,每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第1处起)不计分。

My father often took me to his hospital when I was off my school. He showed me how his medical instruments was used. I felt so closely to him. However, after I went to high school, somehow I become distant from him. I was unwilling talk with him and often disobeyed his rule of not stay out with my friends too late. The disagreement was too sharp that neither he nor I knew what to settle it. One day, he talked with me or hoped to mend our relations. With the efforts made by all sides, we began to understand each other better.


【答案】

1.去掉my       2was→were       3.closely→close            4.become→became        5.talk前面加to   6.stay→staying      7.too→so        8.what→how       9.or→and                     10.all→both

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,介绍了作者在成长过程中和父亲之间关系的变化及处理分歧的过程。

【详解】1.考查短语。句意:当我不上学时,我的爸爸经常带我去他的医院。off school为固定短语,表示“不在上学时”,school前面不加任何限定词。故将my去掉。

2.考查主谓一致。句意:他向我展示他的医疗器械是如何使用的。主语instruments为复数形式,全文为一般过去时,be动词用复数形式were。故将was改为were。

3.考查形容词。句意:我对他感觉如此亲近。felt为系动词,后面用形容词作表语,表示“亲近的”,closely为副词,此处用close。故将closely改为close。

4.考查动词时态。句意:然而,在我上了高中之后,不知怎么的,我开始疏远他。全文用一般过去时,动词become应改为过去式became。故将become改为became。

5.考查短语。句意:我不愿意和他交谈,经常违反他让我不要在外面待到很晚的规定。be willing to do意思为:愿意做,为固定短语。故在talk前面加to。

6.考查非谓语动词。句意同上。of为介词,后面的动词stay用动名词形式staying作宾语。故将stay改为staying。

7.考查状语从句。句意:这分歧如此尖锐,以至于他和我都不知道如何解决它。固定句型“so…that…”译为“如此……以至于……”引导结果状语从句。故将too改为so。

8.考查副词。句意同上。此处为“疑问副词+不定式”结构来做动词knew的宾语。结合句意,此处表达“如何解决它”,settle it为动宾关系,此处缺少方式状语,用how。故将what改为how。

9.考查并列连词。句意:一天,他和我交谈,并且希望修补我们的关系。根据语境,“talked with me”与“hoped to mend our relations”为顺承、递进关系,用and连接。故将or改为and。

10.考查限定词。句意:在两方的努力下,我们开始更好地理解对方。结合语境可知,此处表示作者和父亲双方,用both修饰sides,表示两方,all用于三者及以上。故将all改为both。


第二节  书面表达(满分25分)

你校将以六月八日世界海洋日为主,举办英语征文比赛,请你写一篇短文投稿。

内容包括:

1.海洋的重要性;

2.保护海洋的倡议。

注意:

1.词数100左右;

2.短文的题目和首句已为你写好。


【参考答案】

When it comes to ocean, its pollution is becoming more and more serious. World Ocean Day, falling on June 8th, is aimed at raising awareness of ocean conservation.

Ocean plays a key role in our world. Not only does ocean offer us sufficient food, but also it maintains the balance of nature. Thus, it is imperative to protect ocean. First of all, what we can do is to place importance on our daily actions. For example, garbage can’t be thrown into ocean. What’s more, we can also hand out leaflets to call on more people to protect the ocean. The more people are involved, the better the ocean environment is.

All in all, it is high time that we devoted ourselves to protecting ocean. To protect ocean is to protect ourselves.

【解析】

【导语】本文是一篇应用文,就世界海洋日为主题向英文征文比赛投稿,阐述海洋的重要性并提出一些建议。

【详解】1.词汇积累

越来越:more and more→increasingly

重视:place importance on→attach importance to

重要的:key→significant

此外:what’s more→furthermore

2句式拓展

简单句变复合句

原句:World Ocean Day, falling on June 8th, is aimed at raising awareness of ocean conservation.

拓展句:World Ocean Day, which falls on June 8th, is aimed at raising awareness of ocean conservation.

【点睛】[高分句型1]Not only does ocean offer us sufficient food, but also it maintains the balance of nature.(运用了部分倒装结构)

[高分句型2]When it comes to ocean, its pollution becoming more and more serious.(使用了固定句型)

[高分句型3]First of all, what we can do is to place importance on our daily actions.(使用了主语从句)



2022年高考英语

全国乙卷真题及答案解析


2022年全国乙卷适用地区:河南、山西、江西、安徽、甘肃、青海、内蒙古、黑龙江、吉林、宁夏、新疆、陕西


2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国乙卷)

英语

注意事项:

1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。


第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15.  B. £9.18.      C. £9.15.

答案是C。


1. What does the man want to do?

A. Have breakfast.  B. Take a walk.      C. Call his office.

2. What was George doing last night?

A. Having a meeting.  B. Flying home.      C. Working on a project.

3. Why does the man suggest going to the park?

A. It's big.  B. It's quiet.      C. It's new.

4. How does the woman sound?

A. Annoyed.  B. Pleased.      C. Puzzled.

5. Where is the man's table?

A. Near the door.  B. By the window.    C. In the corner.


【参考答案】

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C  


第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. What are the speakers going to do tonight?

A. Eat out.B. Go shopping.      C. Do sports.

7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Boss and secretary.B. Hostess and guest.      

C. Husband and wife.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. Why does the woman think July is the best time to move?

A. Their business is slow.B. The weather is favorable.      C. It's easy to hire people.

9. How will they handle the moving?

A. Finish it all at once.B. Have the sales section go first.      C. Do one department at a time.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. What did Peter learn from his grandfather?

A. How to appreciate art works.

B. How to deal with artists. 

C. How to run a museum.

11. What did Peter do in Chicago?

A. He studied at a college.

B. He served in the army. 

C. He worked in a gallery.

12. Whose works did Peter like best?

A. Rembrandt's.     B. Botticelli's.     C. Rubens'.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. Where does the conversation take place?

A. At a library.     B. In a law firm.      C. On a train.

14. By what time did John plan to finish his term paper?

A. March.  B. August.      C. October.

15. Why did John quit his part-time job?

A. He had to catch up with his study.

B. He was offered a better one.      

C. He got tired of it.

16. What is Susan's attitude to John's problem?

A. Carefree.        B. Understanding.    C. Forgiving.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. What did the speaker do before the year 2012?

A. A fitness coach. 

B. A chess player.      

C. A marathon runner.

18. Why was the 2016 Olympics important for the speaker?

A. He was motivated by Bolt.

B. He broke a world record.      

C. He won fifth place.

19. Which is the hardest for the speaker?

A. Getting over an injury.

B. Doing strength training. 

C. Representing Botswana.

20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?

A. His plan to go for the gold.

B. His experience on the track.

C. His love for his home country.


【参考答案】

6.A 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.A 

16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B 


第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Henry Raeburn(1756-1823)

The Exhibition


This exhibition of some sixty masterpieces celebrating the life and work of Scotland's best loved painter, Sir Henry Raeburn, comes to London. Selected from collections throughout the world, it is the first major exhibition of his work to be held in over forty years.


Lecture Series


Scottish National Portrait(肖像画)Gallery presents a series of lectures for the general public. They are held in the Lecture Room. Admission to lectures is free.



An Introduction to Raeburn

Sunday 26 Oct., 15.00

DUNCAN THOMSON

Raeburn's English Contemporaries

Thursday 30 Oct., 13.10

JUDY EGERTON

Characters and Characterisation in 

Raeburn's Portraits

Thursday 6 Nov., 13.10

NICHOLAS PHILLIPSON

Raeburn and Artist's Training in the 

18th Century

Thursday 13 Nov., 13.10

MARTIN POSTLE


Exhibition Times


Monday-Saturday 10.00-17.45Sunday 12.00-17.45

Last admission to the exhibition: 17.15. There is no re-admission.

Closed: 24-26 December and 1 January.


Admission


£4. Children under 12 years accompanied by an adult are admitted free.


Schools and Colleges


A special low entrance charge of f2 per person is available to all in full-time education, up to and including those at first degree level, in organised groups with teachers.

21. What is the right time for attending Raeburn's English Contemporaries?

A. Sun. 26 Oct.  B. Thurs. 30 Oct.      C. Thurs. 6 Nov.      D. Thurs.13 Nov.

22. How much would a couple with two children under 12 pay for admission?

A. £4.   B. £8.     C. £12.      D. £16.

23. How can full-time students get group discounts?

A. They should go on Sunday mornings.

B. They should come from art schools.

C. They must be led by teachers. 

D. They must have ID cards with them.


【参考答案】

21.B 22.B 23.C 


B

In 1916, two girls of wealthy families, best friends from Auburn, N. Y.—Dorothy Woodruff and Rosamond Underwood—traveled to a settlement in the Rocky Mountains to teach in a one-room schoolhouse. The girls had gone to Smith College. They wore expensive clothes. So for them to move to Elkhead, Colo. to instruct the children whose shoes were held together with string was a surprise. Their stay in Elkhead is the subject of Nothing Daunted: The Unexpected Education of Two Society Girls in the West by Dorothy Wickenden, who is a magazine editor and Dorothy Woodruff's granddaughter.

Why did they go then? Well, they wanted to do something useful. Soon, however, they realized what they had undertaken.

They moved in with a local family, the Harrisons, and, like them, had little privacy, rare baths, and a blanket of snow on their quilt when they woke up in the morning. Some mornings, Rosamond and Dorothy would arrive at the schoolhouse to find the children weeping from the cold. In spring, the snow was replaced by mud over ice.

In Wickenden's book, she expanded on the history of the West and also on feminism, which of course influenced the girls' decision to go to Elkhead. A hair-raising section concerns the building of the railroads, which entailed(牵涉)drilling through the Rockies, often in blinding snowstorms. The book ends with Rosamond and Dorothy's return to Auburn.

Wickenden is a very good storyteller. The sweep of the land and the stoicism(坚忍)of the people move her to some beautiful writing. Here is a picture of Dorothy Woodruff, on her horse, looking down from a hill top: "When the sun slipped behind the mountains, it shed a rosy glow all around them. Then a full moon rose. The snow was marked only by small animals: foxes, coyotes, mice, and varying hares, which turned white in the winter."


24. Why did Dorothy and Rosamond go to the Rocky Mountains?

A. To teach in a school.  B. To study American history.

C. To write a book.         D. To do sightseeing.

25. What can we learn about the girls from paragraph 3?

A. They enjoyed much respect.

B. They had a room with a bathtub.

C. They lived with the local kids.D. They suffered severe hardships.

26. Which part of Wickenden's writing is hair-raising?

A. The extreme climate of Auburn.

B. The living conditions in Elkhead.

C. The railroad building in the Rockies.

D. The natural beauty of the West.

27. What is the text?

A. A news report.        B. A book review.      

C. A children's story.    D. A diary entry.


【参考答案】

24.A 25.D 26.C 27.B 


C

Can a small group of drones(无人机)guarantee the safety and reliability of railways and, at the same time, help railway operators save billions of euros each year? That is the very likely future of applying today's "eyes in the sky" technology to making sure that the millions of kilometres of rail tracks and infrastructure(基础设施)worldwide are safe for trains on a 24/7 basis.

Drones are already being used to examine high-tension electrical lines. They could do precisely the same thing to inspect railway lines and other vital aspects of rail infrastructure such as the correct position of railway tracks and switching points. The more regularly they can be inspected, the more railway safety, reliability and on-time performance will be improved. Costs would be cut and operations would be more efficient(高效)across the board.

That includes huge savings in maintenance costs and better protection of railway personnel safety. It is calculated that European railways alone spend approximately 20 billion euros a year on maintenance, including sending maintenance staff, often at night, to inspect and repair the rail infrastructure. That can be dangerous work that could be avoided with drones assisting the crews' efforts.

By using the latest technologies, drones could also start providing higher-value services for railways, detecting faults in the rail or switches, before they can cause any safety problems. To perform these tasks, drones for rail don't need to be flying overhead. Engineers are now working on a new concept: the rail drones of the future. They will be moving on the track ahead of the train, and programmed to run autonomously. Very small drones with advanced sensors and AI and travelling ahead of the train could guide it like a co-pilot. With their ability to see ahead, they could signal any problem, so that fast-moving trains would be able to react in time.


28. What makes the application of drones to rail lines possible?

A. The use of drones in checking on power lines.B. Drones' ability to work at high altitudes.

C. The reduction of cost in designing drones.         

D. Drones' reliable performance in remote areas.

29. What does "maintenance" underlined in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. Personnel safety.

B. Assistance from drones.

C. Inspection and repair.

D. Construction of infrastructure.

30. What function is expected of the rail drones?

A. To provide early warning.

B. To make trains run automatically.

C. To earn profits for the crews.

D. To accelerate transportation.

31. Which is the most suitable title for the text?

A. What Faults Can Be Detected with Drones

B. How Production of Drones Can Be Expanded

C. What Difficulty Drone Development Will Face

D. How Drones Will Change the Future of Railways


【参考答案】

28. A 29.C 30.A 31.D


D

The Government's sugar tax on soft drinks has brought in half as much money as Ministers first predicted it would generate, the first official data on the policy has shown.

First announced in April, 2016, the tax which applies to soft drinks containing more than 5g of sugar per 100ml, was introduced to help reduce childhood obesity(肥胖). It is believed that today's children and teenagers are consuming three times the recommended level of sugar, putting them at a higher risk of the disease.

Initially the sugar tax was expected to make £520m a year for the Treasury. However, data of the first six months showed it would make less than half this amount. At present it is expected to generate £240m for the year ending in April 2019, which will go to school sports.

It comes after more than half of soft drinks sold in shops have had their sugar levels cut by manufacturers(制造商)so they can avoid paying the tax. Drinks now contain 45 million fewer kilos of sugar as a result of manufacturers' efforts to avoid the charge, according to Treasury figures. Since April drinks companies have been forced to pay between 18p and 24p for every litre of sugary drink they produce or import, depending on the sugar content.

However, some high sugar brands, like Classic Coca Cola, have accepted the sugar tax and are refusing to change for fear of upsetting consumers. Fruit juices, milk-based drinks and most alcoholic drinks are free of the tax, as are small companies manufacturing fewer than 1m litres per year.

Today's figures, according to one government official, show the positive influence the sugar tax is having by raising millions of pounds for sports facilities(设施)and healthier eating in schools. Helping the next generation to have a healthy and active childhood is of great importance, and the industry is playing its part.


32. Why was the sugar tax introduced?

A. To collect money for schools.

B. To improve the quality of drinks.

C. To protect children's health.

D. To encourage research in education.

33. How did some drinks companies respond to the sugar tax?

A. They turned to overseas markets.

B. They raised the prices of their products.

C. They cut down on their production.

D. They reduced their products' sugar content.

34. From which of the following is the sugar tax collected?

A. Most alcoholic drinks. 

B. Milk-based drinks. 

C. Fruit juices. 

D. Classic Coke.

35. What can be inferred about the adoption of the sugar tax policy?

A. It is a short-sighted decision.   B. It is a success story.

C. It benefits manufacturers.        D. It upsets customers.


【参考答案】

32.C 33.D 34.D 35.B


第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Friendship needs care and attention to keep it in good health. Here are five ways to sustain(保持)long-distance friendships.

·Set a regular date

Long-lasting friendships share the characteristic that both sides equally contact(联系)and share with one another. With busy schedules, squeezing in phone calls can be a challenge.   36    

·More isn't always merrier

Make sure you have communicated with your friend about how frequently each of you wants to be contacted and what method works best for you both. 37   . There are alternatives to constant written communication, such as leaving voice messages or having a group chat.

·Practise empathy(共情)

  38   . The friend who is remaining needs to be sensitive to all the additional time demands placed on the friend who has moved. The one in the new environment should be sympathetic to the fact that your friend may feel abandoned.

·   39   

Anniversaries and birthdays carry even more weight in long-distance friendships. Although technology might make day-to-day communication possible, extra effort goes a long way on special days. Simply keeping a diary that keeps track of friends' birthdays and other important dates will make sure nothing slips by you.

·Don't rely on technology alone

  40   , but long-distance friendships -even close ones -may require more conscious effort to sustain. Try to seek out chances to renew friendships. How to do it? Just spend face-to-face time together whenever possible.

A. Remember important dates

B. Compensate by writing letters

C. It is also helpful for you to be a friendship keeper

D. Try to find a time that works for both of you and stick to it

E. Friends need to talk about their preferred methods of communication

F. It is easy to have a sense of connectedness through social media

G. You may be the friend who left or the one who was left behind


【参考答案】

36-40. DEGAF


第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Young children across the globe enjoy playing games of hide and seek. For them, there's something highly exciting about 41   someone else's glance and making oneself unable to be seen.

However, we all witness that preschool children are remarkably 42 at hiding. They often cover only their eyes with their hands, leaving the rest of their bodies   43   .

For a long time, this ineffective hiding method was 44  as evidence that children are hopelessly "egocentric"(自我中心的)creatures. But our  45  research results in child developmental psychology   46   that idea.

We brought young children aged 2-4 into our Minds in Development Lab at USC. Each 47 sat down with an adult who covered her own eyes or  48   . We then asked the child if she could  49  or hear the adult. Surprisingly, children replied that they couldn't. The same  50   happened when the adult covered her own mouth: 51   children said that they couldn't   52   to her.

A number of 53 ruled out that the children misunderstood what they were being asked. The results were clear: Our young subjects   54   the questions and knew   55   what was asked of them. Their   56   to the questions reflected their true   57   that "I can see you only if you can see me, too." They simply   58   mutual(相互的)recognition and regard. Our  59   suggest when a child "hides" by putting a blanket over her head, it is not a result of egocentrism. In fact, children consider this method   60   when others use it.

41. A. following  B. taking  C. escaping D. directing

42. A. clever   B. bad   C. scared       D. quick

43. A. exposed   B. examined   C. untouched D. imbalanced

44. A. supported B. guaranteed   C. imagined   D. interpreted

45. A. disappointing  B. mixed  C. surprising D. desired

46. A. explained   B. confirmed     C. contradictedD. tested

47. A. parent  B. child   C. researcher   D. doctor

48. A. feet   B. nose      C. hands      D. ears

49. A. see   B. help      C. reach        D. fool

50. A. event  B. thing      C. action     D. accident

51. A. Yet  B. Now    C. Soon         D. Once

52. A. speak   B. listen     C. tum                  D. wave

53. A. instructions   B.descriptions C. experiments     D. assumptions

54. A. comprehended  B. predicted  C. explored               D. ignored

55. A. partly   B. honestly     C. vaguely   D. exactly

56. A. responses  B. approaches   C. contribution             D. sensitivity

57. A. ability   B. belief    C. identity   D. purpose

58. A. hold back   B. relate to   C. insist on    D. make up

59. A. limitations  B. requirements   C. theories  D. findings

60. A. tentative  B. impressive   C. creative D. effective


【参考答案】

41-45. CBADC 46-50. CBDAB  51-55. BACAD  56-60. ABCDD


第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

May 21st this year marks the first International Tea Day, which was named officially 61   the United Nations on November 27th, 2019. To celebrate 62 festival, a number of events took place at the Chinese Businessman Museum in Beijing on Thursday.

The chairman of the China Culture Promotion Society 63 (address)the opening ceremony. "As a main promoter of the International Tea Day, the birthplace of tea and the   64   (large)tea-producing country, China has a   65   (responsible)to work with other countries to promote the healthy development of the tea industry. It can help to build a community with a   66   (share)future for mankind," he said.

The "First International Tea Day Tea Road Cooperative Initiative" issued(发布)at the ceremony calls for people working in the tea industry to come together to promote international cooperation 67 cultural exchanges. A four-year tea promotion—Tea Road Cooperative Plan—was also issued in accordance with the initiative.

  68   (strengthen)the connection with young people, the event included a number of public promotional activities on social media,   69  (invite)twenty-nine tea professionals from around the world to have thirty-six hours of uninterrupted live broadcasts.

The Chinese Ancient Tea Museum was officially unveiled(揭幕)at the ceremony, opening   70   (it)first exhibition: The Avenue of Truth—A Special Exhibition of Pu'er Tea.


【参考答案】

61.by     62. the    63. addressed   64. largest  65. responsibility   66. shared    67. and    68. to   69. inviting    70. its


第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分

第一节,短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(^),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

We all know that cycling is a greatly exercise. A doctor tells me people

who lives the longest are dancers and cyclists. Maybe it is because the

combination of fresh air, smooth movement and exercise. Whether you ride

a bicycle, you don't use petrol. So they are not producing carbon dioxide

and not cause air pollution. Just see how cars have been taken over our cities.

They often run at high speeds, what may put our lives in danger. And there were

traffic jams, too. Our cities will be better places if we replace cars with bicycle.


【参考答案】

第一句:greatly→great第二句:lives→live

第三句:because后加of第四句:Whether→When

第五句:they→you;cause→causing

第六句:去掉been

第七句:what→which第八句:were→are

第九句:bicycle→bicycles



第二节书面表达(满分25分)

学校英文报正在开展以Learning English Beyond the Classroom为题的讨论。请使用图表中的调查结果写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:

1.学习活动状况描述:

2.简单评论;

3.你的建议。

注意:

1.词数100左右;

2.短文的题目和首句已为你写好。



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